| 1. | Which one of the following statements regarding the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is CORRECT? |
| A. | The diagnostic criteria recommended by WHO were strongly evidence-based. |
| B. | A rise in both fasting plasma glucose level and post prandial glucose level after oral glucose tolerance test is necessary to support a diagnosis of GDM. |
| C. | Fasting plasma glucose equal or greater than 5.6 mol/l can confirm a diagnosis of GDM according to WHO guideline. |
| D. | IADPSG recommended that post-prandial plasma glucose equal to or greater than 7.8 mol/l can satisfactorily document a diagnosis of GDM. |
| E. | Fasting plasma glucose equal to or greater than 5.6 mol/l is sufficient to diagnose GDM according to NICE. |
| 2. | Which one of the following is the BEST option concerning the management of gestational diabetes mellitus? |
| A. | Diet and exercise are important entities. |
| B. | Ultrasonic imaging is needed periodically to assess the foetal growth. |
| C. | Insulin injection is usually indicated if fasting plasma glucose is greater than 7 mol/l. |
| D. | Metformin is an alternative and its use is associated with less maternal weight gain. |
| E. | All of the above. |
| 3. | Which ONE of the following statements concerning Rosai-Dorfmann disease is INCORRECT? |
| A. | It is a benign condition. |
| B. | It is self-limiting. |
| C. | It is invariably associated with massive lymphadenopathy. |
| D. | Skin is the commonest extra-nodal organ involved. |
| E. | Histology may be needed to make a diagnosis. |
| 4. | All statements below concerning the management of Rosai-Dorfmann disease are correct EXCEPT: |
| A. | A conservative approach with close observation may be adopted. |
| B. | Ciclosporin is not an effective treatment. |
| C. | Surgical debulking is an option. |
| D. | It is best left untreated as it is usually self-limiting. |
| E. | It may respond to a combined therapy with azathioprine and methotrexate. |
| 5. | Regarding the transmission of Zika virus, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT? |
| A. | Aedes aegypti is an implicated vector in Hong Kong. |
| B. | Aedes aegypti has been shown to transmit Dengue but not Yellow Fever viruses. |
| C. | The risk of vertical transmission is minimal. |
| D. | Blood transfusion is a known route. |
| E. | There is no evidence to support person-to-person transmission through sexual intercourse. |
| 6. | Maggie Lee, a 30 years old lady, just returned from Brazil. She came to see you today because of a low grade fever, myalgia, malaise and headache. You noticed several mosquito bites on her forearms. She is also planning to have a baby. Which ONE of the following management steps is CORRECT? |
| A. | The symptoms are diagnostic of Zika virus infection and so Maggie should be referred to the emergency department. |
| B. | Maggie should be evaluated for Zika, dengue and Chikingunya viruses infection. |
| C. | There is no need for notifying the Centre of Health Protection since the diagnosis is not yet confirmed. |
| D. | Maggie should be started on a combination of oral amantadine and acyclovir. |
| E. | Maggie is considered safe to become pregnant once her symptoms have resolved. |