1. | Alpha-blockers are appropriate and effective treatment alternatives for patients with bothersome, moderate to severe LUTS secondary to BPH. Which of the following is the most frequent adverse event of alpha-blockers? |
A. | Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension |
B. | Depression |
C. | Intra-operative floppy iris syndrome |
D. | Hypersensitivity reactions |
E. | Erectile disorders |
2. | Which of the following statements concerning muscarinic receptor antagonists is INCORRECT? |
A. | Muscarinic receptor antagonists are appropriate and effective treatment alternatives for the management of LUTS secondary to BPH in men when LUTS are predominantly irritative. |
B. | Muscarinic receptor antagonists are appropriate and effective treatment alternatives for the management of LUTS secondary to BPH in men with an elevated PVR. |
C. | Combination treatment of an alpha-blocker with a muscarinic receptor antagonist is recommended in patients with moderate-to-severe LUTS if relief of storage symptoms has been insufficient with monotherapy with either drug. |
D. | Theoretically muscarinic receptor antagonists might decrease bladder strength, and hence might be associated with PVR urinary retention. |
E. | Muscarinic receptor antagonists may have different anticholinergic side effects. |
3. | Which of the following statements concerning 5-alpha reductase inhibitors is INCORRECT? |
A. | 5-alpha reductase inhibitors increase intracellular cyclic guanosine monophosphate, thus reducing smooth muscle tone of the detrusor, prostate and urethra. |
B. | 5-alpha reductase inhibitors lead to a reduction in the overall androgenic growth stimulus in the prostate, an increase in apoptosis and atrophy and ultimately a shrinkage of the organ. |
C. | There is no causal relationship with high grade prostatic cancers has been proven, patients taking 5-alpha reductase inhibitors should not have serial PSA testing. |
D. | Because of delayed prostatic response to 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors, after 3 to 6 months of therapy, the tested PSA level should be doubled in order to appropriately assess the patient's true level. |
E. | Adverse effects include decreased in libido, ejaculatory and erectile dysfunction, breast tenderness and enlargement. |
4. | In the study of white coat effect (WCE), which statement was noted to be FALSE? |
A. | The subjects, who had previously been taught about the HBPM techniques by health professions, were more likely to have true WCE. |
B. | The longer the HBPM experience, the more likely to be true WCE. |
C. | Duration of HT was not statistically significant as a predictor of WCE. |
D. | Most suspected WCE subjects believed that HBPM was important in their HT management. |
E. | More subjects of suspected WCE were true WCE than suboptimal blood pressure control ones. |
5. | Regarding the study on WCE, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT: |
A. | About 40% of suspected WCE subjects were found to be undertreated. |
B. | Gender and body mass index were not statistically significant as predictors of true WCE. |
C. | Most suspected WCE subjects believed more in clinic BP results than HBPM results. |
D. | The subjects with higher systolic BP were more likely to have sub- optimal BP control. |
E. | 24-hour ABPM was a gold standard in the diagnosis of white coat hypertension. |
6. | The followings are the ways that can enhance the management of WCE patients EXCEPT: |
A. | All the WCE patients should monitor BP regularly at home with two different sphygmomanometers. |
B. | All suspected WCE patients should have 24-hour ABPM. |
C. | All HT patients should attend HBPM technique classes. |
D. | All suspected WCE patients should have their HBPM technique assessed by a nurse. |
E. | The technique of HBPM should be monitored by health professions regularly. |