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MCQ December 2017

1. Alpha-blockers are appropriate and effective treatment alternatives for patients with bothersome, moderate to severe LUTS secondary to BPH. Which of the following is the most frequent adverse event of alpha-blockers?

A. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
B. Depression
C. Intra-operative floppy iris syndrome
D. Hypersensitivity reactions
E. Erectile disorders

Answer: A.


2. Which of the following statements concerning muscarinic receptor antagonists is INCORRECT?

A. Muscarinic receptor antagonists are appropriate and effective treatment alternatives for the management of LUTS secondary to BPH in men when LUTS are predominantly irritative.
B. Muscarinic receptor antagonists are appropriate and effective treatment alternatives for the management of LUTS secondary to BPH in men with an elevated PVR.
C. Combination treatment of an alpha-blocker with a muscarinic receptor antagonist is recommended in patients with moderate-to-severe LUTS if relief of storage symptoms has been insufficient with monotherapy with either drug.
D. Theoretically muscarinic receptor antagonists might decrease bladder strength, and hence might be associated with PVR urinary retention.
E. Muscarinic receptor antagonists may have different anticholinergic side effects.

Answer: B.


3. Which of the following statements concerning 5-alpha reductase inhibitors is INCORRECT?

A. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors increase intracellular cyclic guanosine monophosphate, thus reducing smooth muscle tone of the detrusor, prostate and urethra.
B. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors lead to a reduction in the overall androgenic growth stimulus in the prostate, an increase in apoptosis and atrophy and ultimately a shrinkage of the organ.
C. There is no causal relationship with high grade prostatic cancers has been proven, patients taking 5-alpha reductase inhibitors should not have serial PSA testing.
D. Because of delayed prostatic response to 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors, after 3 to 6 months of therapy, the tested PSA level should be doubled in order to appropriately assess the patient's true level.
E. Adverse effects include decreased in libido, ejaculatory and erectile dysfunction, breast tenderness and enlargement.

Answer: C.


4. In the study of white coat effect (WCE), which statement was noted to be FALSE?

A. The subjects, who had previously been taught about the HBPM techniques by health professions, were more likely to have true WCE.
B. The longer the HBPM experience, the more likely to be true WCE.
C. Duration of HT was not statistically significant as a predictor of WCE.
D. Most suspected WCE subjects believed that HBPM was important in their HT management.
E. More subjects of suspected WCE were true WCE than suboptimal blood pressure control ones.

Answer: B.


5. Regarding the study on WCE, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

A. About 40% of suspected WCE subjects were found to be undertreated.
B. Gender and body mass index were not statistically significant as predictors of true WCE.
C. Most suspected WCE subjects believed more in clinic BP results than HBPM results.
D. The subjects with higher systolic BP were more likely to have sub- optimal BP control.
E. 24-hour ABPM was a gold standard in the diagnosis of white coat hypertension.

Answer: C.


6. The followings are the ways that can enhance the management of WCE patients EXCEPT:

A. All the WCE patients should monitor BP regularly at home with two different sphygmomanometers.
B. All suspected WCE patients should have 24-hour ABPM.
C. All HT patients should attend HBPM technique classes.
D. All suspected WCE patients should have their HBPM technique assessed by a nurse.
E. The technique of HBPM should be monitored by health professions regularly.

Answer: A.


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